Biology

NEET 2017 BIOLOGY Model paper

1) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
a) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
b) The end of the P-wave marks the end of systole.
c) The ventricular contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
d) By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart beat rate of an individual.

2) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
a) During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete substances like H+, K+ and HCO3- into the filtrate.
b) As glomerular filtrate move down in descending limb of HL it gets concentrated and as concentrated filtrate pass upward in ascending limb of HL it gets diluted.
c) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in PCT.
d) Reabsorption in ascending limb of HL is minimum.
A) a and b
b) b and c
c) c and d
d) a and c

3) If after cutting through dorsal root of a spinal nerve of a mammal, the associated receptor in skin was stimulated the animal would
a) Still be able to feel the stimulation
b) Show no response
c) Show a normal but slow response
d) Respond but only at a different level of spinal cord

4) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Humans focus the eye by changing the shape of the lens
b) Human eye adjusts the amount of light entering the eye by contracting the ciliary muscles
c) Human eye focuses by moving the lens closer to or farther from the retina
d) Colour blindness is due to an inherited lack of one or more types of cones

5) Which one of the following hormones though synthesised else where, is stored released by the master gland?
a) Luteinizing hormone
b) Prolactin
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Antidiuretic hormone

6) Assertion:- Allele of pollens happens to be one of the two alleles of pistil; the pollen fails to form pollen tube.
Reason:- The incompatibility is due to the genotype of the pollen.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark a.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark b.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark c.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark d.

7) Ergot of rye is caused by
a) Claviceps purpurea
b) Sclerospora graminicola
c) Cannabis sativa
d) Algae and fungi

8) Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?
a) Loose smut of wheat  Ustilago nuda
b) Root knot of vegetables  Meloidogyne sp.
c) Late blight of potato  Alternaria solani
d) Black rust of wheat  Puccinia graminis

9) Most of the viruses are/have
a) Enveloped nucleo-protein structure
b) Non-enveloped nucleo-protein structure
c) Ifectious protein particles
d) Double-stranded DNA as well as dsRNA

10) Which statement is wrong for viruses?
a) All of them have helical symmetry.
b) They have the ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins.
c) Antibiotics have no effect on them.
d) All are parasites.

11) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube.
b) Fertilization is a physio-chemical process/event.
c) Cleavage produces morula.
d) Cleavage leads to increased mass of protoplasm.

12) Which of the following is true regarding the first germinal layer to differentiate during embryonic development?
a) Endoderm, epiblast
b) Endoderm, hypoblast
c) Mesoderm, epiblast
d) Mesoderm, hypoblast

13) Find the incorrect match with respect to increase in the levels of following hormones:
a) Oxytocin  Uterine contraction during labor
b) Prolactin – Lactation after child birth
c) Progesterone  Uterine contraction
d) Luteinizing hormone  Stimulates ovulation

14) The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called
a) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
b) Follicular phase and lasts for about 6 days
c) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
d) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

15) In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
a) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
b) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
d) Zygote only

16) According to the genic balance theory of Bridges, which is correct for  AAA + XXY condition of Drosophila?
a) Supermale
b) Superfemale
c) Intersex
d) Normal male but sterile

17) Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in fruit fly and found that
a) Loosely linked genes show low recombination
b) The strength of linkage between genes of white eye and miniature wing is lower than the genes of yellow body and white eye
c) Tightly linked genes show equal amount of parental and recombinant types in F2 generation
d) All genes segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviates very significantly from the 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio

18) Mendel selected Pisum sativum for hybridization experiments because of
a) Clear contrasting characters and short life span
b) Long life span and non-fertile hybrids
c) Presence of unisexual flowers
d) Infertile hybrids and production of large number of seeds by each plant

19) In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a plant with genotype RRTt is crossed with a plant with genotype rrtt, then
a) All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
b) 25% will be tall with red fruit
c) 50% will be tall with red fruit
d) 75% will be tall with red fruit

20) The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are known to be located on how many different chromosomes?
a) Seven
b) Six
c) Five
d) Four

21) Sickle-cell anemia is
a) Characterized by elongated sickle-like RBCs with a nucleus
b) An autosomal linked dominant trait
c) Caused by substitution of valine  by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of hemoglobin
d) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

22) The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and Not ABC, because O in it refers to having
a) No antigens A and B on RBCs
b) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
c) Over-dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
d) One antibody only-either anti-A or anti-B-on the RBCs

23) During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in
a) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
b) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
c) Association of 30S mRNA with formyl-met RNA
d) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

24) After mutation at a genetic locus, the character of an organism changes due to the change in
a) protein structure
b) DNA replication
c) protein synthesis pattern
d) RNA transcription pattern

25) Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?
a) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) RNA polymerase

26) Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
a) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
b) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
c) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
d) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol

27) In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA and V-chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution because
a) They can be studied from the sample of fossil remains
b) They are small and, therefore, easy to study
c) They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
d) Their structure is known in greater detail

28) What is the correct arrangement of periods of Paleozoic era in ascending order in geological time scale?
a) Cambrian Devonian Ordovician Silurian Carboniferous Permian
b) Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian Carbonif erous Permian
c) Cambrian Ordovician Devonian Silurian Carboniferous Permian
d) Silurian Devonian Cambrian Ordovician Permian Carboniferous

29) What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man(Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
a) Binocular vision
b) Increasing cranial capacity
c) Upright posture
d) Shortening of jaws

30) Which one of the following is true for T-lymphocytes?
a) They cannot release antibodies.
b) They mature in lymph nodes.
c) They comprise 10-15% of lumphocytes.
d) They are principal cells in lymph nodes cortical center.

31) Assertion :- Live attenuated vaccine is better in terms of immunity provided to the recipient.
Reason:- As secondary lymphoid organs, example Peyer’s patches, are stimulated to protect the society.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark a.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark b.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark c.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark d.

32) Assertion :- AIDS spreads by contact between the blood of an infected person and a healthy person.
Reason:- AIDS manifests as tumors or as pathogenic infections.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark a.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark b.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark c.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark d.

33) Which of the following is not true?
a) Fish meal is rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
b) Fish meal is produced from the non-edible parts of fishes.
c) Silver revolution is increase in fish production.
d) Shagreen is the skin of shark.

34) Find the correct match :
               Column I                        Column II
a. Streptomyces venezuelae            i. Neomycin
b. Streptomyces rimosus               ii. Gentamycin
c. Micromonosperma purpurea      iii. Chloramp henicol/ Chloromycetin
d. Streptomyces fradiae                 iv. Oxytetracycline/ Terramycin
a) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)

b) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i)
c) a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii)
d) a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)

35) Which of the following is incorrect match?
a) Gene therapy: An abnormal geneis replaced by normal gene
b) Cloning : Ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E.coli
c) Restriction enzymes : Molecular scissors
d) Exonucleases : molecular glue

36) Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
a) It is a Gram-negative soil bacterium.
b) It produces crown gall disease in dicot plants.
c) The foreign DNA is inserted at the ori site of Ti plasmid.
d) Ti plasmid becomes incorporated into the plant chromosomal DNA.

37) Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
a) It serves as a selectable marker.
b) It is isolated from a virus.
c) It remains active at high temperature.
d) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.

38) Which substance is tested in case of toxicity/safety testing using transgenic animals?
a) Chemicals
b) Pathogen
c) The amount of DNA in the cell
d) The amount of tolerable radiation levels of an organism

39) Why is insulin usually not administered orally to a diabetic patient?
a) Insulin is bitter in taste.
b) Insulin is a peptide.
c) Insulin will lead to a sudden decrease in blood sugar if given orally.
d) Insulin leads to peptic ulcer orally.

40) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Two species within a given community can have exactly the same niche.
b) Two species within a given community cannot have exactly the same niche.
c) Two species can live permanently together
d) Both (b) and (c)

41) In India, tropical rain forests are generally found in
a) Western Ghats
b) North-eastern Himalayas
c) Gangetic Plains in India
d) Both (a) and (b)

42) Assertion:- Under unlimited resource conditions, a population can show an exponential growth curve.
Reason:- The maximum possible number of individuals can always be supported when enough resources are available.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark a.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark b.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark c.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark d.

43) People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang pass about 6 months back
a) Are not physically fit to play games like football
b) Suffer from altitude sickness with  symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
c) Have the usual RBC count but their hemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2
d) Have more RBCs and their hemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2

44) Assertion:- Agriculture and aquacultures are man-maintained ecosy stems.
Reason:- All biotic and abiotic factors are managed by humans in these ecosystems.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark a.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark b.
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false, then mark c.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false, then mark d.

45) The biomass available for consumption by herbivores and decomposers is called
a) Net primary productivity
b) Secondary productivity
c) Standing crop
d) Gross primary productivity

46) According to IUCN, when a taxon is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future, it is
a) Extinct in the wild
b) Endangered
c) Critically endangered
d) Vulnerable

47) Select the correct statement about biodiversity:
a) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
b) Large scale planting of Bt-cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
c) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
d) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.

48) Volcanic eruptions let out large quantities of
a) Harmful dust and sulfurous gases
b) Harmful dust and nitrous gases
c) Harmful dust and carbonous gases
d) Harmful dust and phosphorous gases

49) If the Bengal Tiger becomes extinct
a) Hyenas and wolves will become scare
b) The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
c) Its gene pool will be lost forever
d) The populations of beautiful animals such as deers will get stabilized

50) In 1984, the Bhopal Gas Tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate 
a) Reacted with ammonia
b) Reacted with CO2
c) Reacted with water
d) Reacted with DDT

NEET 2017 BIOLOGY Model paper

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Mallikarjuna

Mallikarjuna

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