MCAT prep questions

1. Bile helps in digestion of fats through
A) Breaking fat into small pieces
B) Emulsification
C) Forming muscles
D) None of these

2. The main cause of anaemia is
1) Deficiency of Ca
2) Deficiency of Na
3) Deficiency of Fe
4) Deficiency of Mg
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) All the above

3. Match the following
a) Salivary amylase     i) Proteins
b) Bile salts                 ii) Milk proteins
c) Renin                     iii) Starch
d) Pepsin                    iv) Lipids
e) Steapsin                  v) Emulsification of fats
A) a – v, b – iv, c – i, d – ii, e – iii
B) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – v, e – i
C) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – I, e – v
D) a – iii, b – v, c – ii, d – i, e – iv

4. Digestion of starch takes place in
1) Buccal cavity and esophagus
2) Buccal cavity and duodenum
3) Stomach and duodenum
4) Duodenum only
Choose the correct answer
A) 1 & 2
B) Only 2
C) Only 4
D) 1,3 & 4

5. Releasing of saliva is regulated by
A) Autonomous nervous system
B) Central nervous system
C) Enzyme ptyalin
D) Papillae of the tongue

6. The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called
I) Bronchi 
II) Trachea
III) Microtrachea
IV) Eustachian tubes
Choose the correct answer
A) Only I
B) only I & II
C) Only III & IV
D) Only IV

7. During pneumonia which of the following gets accumulated in lung tissue?
B) Fluid WBC
C) Blood
D) Plasma

8. Asthma is due to
A) Elasticity of lungs is reduced
B) Degradation of alveolar wall
C) Bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasms
D) Damage in diaphragm

9. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except
1) Pulmonary artery 
2) Renal artery
3) Hepatic artery 
4) Cardiac artery
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 2 & 3
D) 1 & 2

10. Maximum amount of oxygen is exchanged from the blood in the
A) Capillaries surrounding tissue cells
B) Capillaries surrounding the alveoli
C) Left auricle of the heart
D) Arteries of the body

11. If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then
A) BMR decreases
B) BMR increases
C) RBC collapses and urine production increases
D) RBC collapses and urine production decreases

12. Which one is correct?
A) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Blood platelets
B) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
C) Neuron = Cyton + Dendrite + Axon + Synapse
D) Plasma = Blood – lymphocytes

13. A muscular wall is absent in
1) Capillary 
2) Vein
3) Venule 
4) Arteriole
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) 1 & 3
D) All the above

14. Which is the correct sequence of arrangement of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms of number per mm3 of human blood?
A) Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
B) Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
C) Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
D) Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils

15. In developing embryo RBCs are formed in
I ) Lymph node 
II) Bone marrow
III) Liver
IV) Spleen
Choose the correct answer
A) Only I
B) Only I & II
C) Only III
D) I & III

16. Haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve is
I) Straight line 
II) Constant
III) Sigmoid
IV) Parabolic
Choose the correct answer
A) Only II
B) Only III
C) Only I & IV
D) I & II

17. Bundle of His is a network of
A) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
B) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
C) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
D) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

18. Damage to thymus in children may lead to
A) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
B) Reduction in stem cell production
C) Reduction of haemoglobin content of blood
D) Loss of cell-mediated immunity

19. Match the following:
a) T4              i) Hypothalamus
b) PTH          ii) Thyroid
c) GnRH      iii) Pituitary
d) LH           iv) Parathyroid
A) a- iii, b- iv, c- i, d- ii
B) a- i, b- iv, c- ii, d- iii
C) a- ii, b- iv, c- i, d- iii
D) a- ii, b- i, c- iv, d- iii

20. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A) Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
B) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
C) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
D) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)

21. Islets of Langerhans are found in
1) Anterior Pituitary 
2) Kidney Cortex
3) Spleen 
4) Endocrine pancreas
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) Only 3
D) Only 4

22. During growth period release of too much growth hormone can lead to
A) Cretinism
B) Acromegaly
C) Gigantism
D) Simmond’s disease

23. Hypothalamus and thalamus are in
1) Cerebellum 
2) Cerebrum
3) Limbic system 
4) Diencephalon
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 4
D) 1,2,3 & 4

24. Sensation is a complex pathway involving
A) Sense organs
B) Sense organs and nerve impulses
C) Sense organs, nerve impulses, brain
D) Brain and nerve impulses

25. Brain’s functioning can be obtained with
C) CT scan
D) None of these

26. Which one of the followings are correctly paired with their function
1) Hippocampus – memory
2) Glial cells – supporting
3) Neurons – connecting cells
Choose the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 3
D) 1,2 & 3

27. Which one of the followings is the largest portion of the brain in humans?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Pons

28. Correct sequence of urine formation is
A) Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
B) Secretion, reabsorption, filtration
C) Reabsorption, secretion, filtration
D) Reabsorption, filtration secretion

29. Match the following
1. Metanepridia                 a) Earthworms
2. Malpighian tubules       b) Terrestrial a arthropods
3. Green glands                 c) Crustaceans
A) 1- b, 2- c, 3- a
B) 1- a, 2- b, 3- c
C) 1-c, 2- a, 3- b
D) 1- a, 2- c, 3- b

30. The renal medulla consists of coneshaped tissue masses called
I) Renal pyramid
II) Adipose capsule
III) Renal cortex 
IV) Renal pelvis
Choose the correct answer
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) II and IV

31. Volume of urine is regulated by
A) Aldosterone
B) Aldosterone and testosterone
D) Aldosterone and ADH

32. The term haematuria is used to describe
A) Blood cancer
B) Presence of Red Blood cells in Urine
C) Internal bleeding
D) Blood poisoning

33. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of
A) Glucagon
B) Androgens
C) Progesterone
D) Intestinal mucus

34. Corpus leteum develops from
A) Oocyte
B) Nephrostome
C) Graafian follicle
D) None of the above

35. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
A) Release of fertilizin
B) Release of lysins
C) Capacitation
D) Influx of Na+ in sperm

36. The type of connective tissue that is associated with the Umbilical cord is
A) Adipose connective tissue
B) Jelly-like connective tissue
C) Areolar connective tissue
D) Reticular connective tissue

37. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is
A) Spermatogonia- spermatidspermatocyte- sperms
B) Spermatocyte- spermatogoniaspermatid- sperms
C) Spermatogonia- spermatocytespermatid- sperms
D) Spermatid- spermatocytespermatogonia- sperms

38. Which of the following structures are derivatives of the endoderm?
A) Skin and nerve cord
B) Alimentary canal and respiratory structures
C) Muscles and blood
D) Excretory and reproductive structures

39. Correct sequence of embryo development
A) Gamete–> Zygote–> Morula–>Blastula–> Gastrula
B) Gamete –> Zygote–> Blastula–> Morula –> Gastrula
C) Gamete–> Neurula –> Gastrula
D) Gamete –> Neurula–> Morula

40. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence
I. Terminalization 
II. Crossing over
III. Synapsis 
IV. Disjunction of genomes
Choose the correct answer

41. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during
A) Leptotene
B) Diakinesis
C) Diplotene
D) Pachytene

42. Synapsis occurs between
A) mRNA and ribosomes
B) A male and a female gamete
C) Two homologous chromosomes
D) Spindle fibres and centromere

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