M Pharm Il Semester Regular & Supplementary Examinations, November 2012
NOVEL DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEMS
(For students admitted in 2009, 2010 & 2011 only)
(Pharmaceutics)

Time: 3 hours                                                                                                Max Marks: 60
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks
1 Explain in detail about the following terms:
(a) Delayed release.
(b) controlled release.
(c) Prolonged release.
(d) sustained release.


2 (a) Differentiate dissolution and diffusion controlled drug delivery system.

(b) Write a note pH independent oral controlled release system.


3 (a) Explain the types of ion exchange resins used in oral controlled system,

(b) Discuss in detailed about GRDDS,


4 (a) Enumerate various approaches involved in the delivery of drug in to the eye,

(b) Write a note on vaginal drug delivery system


5 (a) Describe the classification of transdermal devices with neat diagram.

(b) Briefly explain iontophoretic drug delivery system.


6 (a) Explain advantages of colon targeted drug delivery system over conventiona drug delivery. Enumerate the criteria for selection of drugs for such system.

(b) Describe various approaches used for site specific drug delivery to colon.


7 Write a note on:
(a) Pharmacosomes.

(b) Drug targeting through antibodies.


8 (a) what are pressures controlled drug delivery systems? Explain hydrodynamic pressure controlled drug delivery systems.

(b) Write a note on medicated chewing gums.

M.Pharm II Semester Regular & Supplementary Examinations, September 2015
NOVEL DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEMS II
(Pharmaceutics)

Max Marks: 60                                                                                        Time: 3 hours
Answer any FIVE questions
All questions carry equal marks

1. (a) Explain epithelia cell Junction structure.

(b) Write the role epithelia cell Junction in drug absorption.


2. (a) Write about mucus structure and composition.

(b) Explain the Lymphatic transport of drugs with suitable examples.


3. (a) Explain gene targeted diseases and the importance of gene therapy.

(b) Write about gene expression system.


4. (a) Differentiate genomic, proteomics and bio-informatic.

(b) Importance of gene therapy in Thalassemia and Hemophilla B.


5. Add a note on the following biotechnology based drugs.
(a) Insulin derivative.
(b) Tissue plasminogen activator.
(c) Herceptin.


6. (a) write the concept used in vaccine development using micro particles.

(b) Mention the antigen adjuvants used in vaccine formulation.


7 (a) Describe antibody-drug conjugate.

(b) Explain drug targeting based on chemical drug delivery approach for brain, eye and liver.


8. Write the principles and procedure involved in the formulation of Liposomes and Noisomes,


1.Which one of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces(from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both N > L and G K definitely true ?
N _G_ P_ L_ K
1. =, >, <
2. , , =, <
3.>, =, ,
4.<, =, ,
5.None of these

2.Which one of the following will be definitely true if the expression Q <S>V=W O R is definitely true ?
1.S O 2.O Q
3.W<Q
4.R V
5.None of these

3.Which one of the following will be definitely true if the expression F=A<L C>O N; Y>L; Q>C is definitely true ?
1.Q N
2.F=Y
3.Q>F
4.Y N
5.None of these

4.Which one of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces(from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that both S. T and P> R definitely true ?
S _N_ P_ T_ R
1. , , =, >
2. , <, =, <
3.<, , =, >
4. , <, >, <
5.None of these

5.Which one of the following will be definitely true if the expression D=C A>B F<G=E H is definitely true ?
1.F H
2.D>F
3.A=G
4.D B
5.None of these

Direction(6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions
P&Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q P%Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q P*Q means P is not greater Q P$Q means P is greater than Q P@Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q

6.U $ Y @ W * K; W % X @ Z I.U $ K II.Z * K
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

7.G @ H $ J * K; H $ M; J $ U I.H $ U II. M & G
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

8.L * K & J @ U; J *T*R I.T $ L II. U * R
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

9.P @ Q @ W % S @ L; Y * S I.Y $ P II. Y % P
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

10.G @ H $ J *K; H $ M; J $ U I. M & K II. K $ U
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

11.P U>T O<Q, R = P I.R >U II.R=U
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

12.W T=U V, X=Y<V I. U Y II.U>Y
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

13.X>W=V<U, Y>Z X I.Y V II.V>Y
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

14.N M=O, Q>W P O I.N>P II.N=P
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

15.J K>H=I, M=N J I.M I II.J I
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

16.A H<B=C, E B, J>G=E I.C J II. C<J
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

17.M=K<N.P, O N I.M O II.M>O
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

18.J>K L, M K<N I.J>N II.J N
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

19.F=A<L C>O N I.F<C II. C>N
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

20.A<B C=D<E, F A I.F>D II.D=F
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Either I or II true
4.Neither I nor II is true
5.Both I and II are true

Direction(21-25): Study the following information to answer the given questions P$Q means P is not smaller than Q P@Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q P#Q means P is neither
greater than nor equal to Q P&Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q P*Q means P is not greater than Q

21.Statements: A & I, I $ C, C # K, K * M
Conclusions:
I. M # C
II. C # M
III. K & M
IV. K # M
1. Only I is true
2. Only III is true
3. Only IV is true
4. Either III or IV is true
5. Either III or IV and II are true

22.Statements: S * P, P $ L, L # Q, Q @ K
Conclusions:
I. K # L
II. P @ Q
III. S # Q
IV. P @ K
1. None is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only II is true
4. Only III is true
5. Only IV is true

23.Statements: W @ J, J # P, P & A, A * Q
Conclusions:
I.  Q $ P
II. A @ J
III. W @ Q
IV. J @ Q
1. I, II and III are true
2. I, II are true
3. I, III are true
4. I, III and IV are true
5. All are true

24.Statements: A # S, S * L, L @ E, E $ B
Conclusions:
I. B # S
II. B @ L
III. S # E
IV. L @ A
1. None is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only II is true
4. Only III is true
5. Only IV is true

25.Statements: L $ M, M @ K, K * U, U # Y
Conclusions:
I. Y @ K
II. M $ L
III. M @ Y
IV. M @ U
1. None is true
2. Only I is true
3. Only II is true
4. Only III is true
5. Only IV is true

Directions (Q.No . 26-30) In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give Answer
1. If only Conclusion I follows
2. If only Conclusion II follows
3. If either Conclusion I or II follows
4. If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5. If both Conclusions I or II follow

26.Statement: B C<M<E<A=F
Conclusions:
I. F>M
II.M<A

27. Statement: E M>R<A=B>Q
Conclusions:
I. E>B
II. R>Q

28.Statement: M>R>S>P=F
Conclusions:
I. R>F
II. S>R

29. Statement: S=A Q, B<Q
Conclusions:
I. S B
II. A>B

30.Statement: A<Q<Y E=F>O
Conclusions:
I. Y=F
II. Y>F

Direction: Question(31-35) In the following Questions, $, *, %, @ and c are used with the following meaning as illustrated below A * B means A is not greater than B A @ B means A is neither
greater than nor equal to B A c B means A is not smaller than B A % B means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B A $ B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B

31.Statement : X * W, W @ Z , Z % Y
Conclusion:
I.Y$ W
II.Z $ W
III.X c Y
1.Only I is true
2. Only II is true
3.Both I and II are true
4.Both I and III are true
5.None is true

32.Statement : D $ E, E c C, C @ A
Conclusion:
I.C * D
II.A $ E
III.A $ D
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Both I and II are true
4.Both I and III are trye
5.None is true

33.Statement : M @ O, O % P, P c N
Conclusion:
I.P c M
II.N @ O
III. N % O
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Both II and III are true
4.Either II or III is true
5.None is true

34.Statement : A c C, C $ B, B % E 
Conclusion: 
I.E @ C 
II.B @ A 
III.A c E
1.Only I is true 2.Ony II is
true 3.Both I and II are true
4.Both I and III are true
5.None is true

35.Statement : P c S, S $ R, R * Q
Conclusion:
I.Q $ S
II.R @ P
III.R % P
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Both I and II are true
4.Either II or III is true
5.All I, II and III are true

Direction: Q(36-40) : Study the following expression carefully to answer the given questions

36.Statement : J N > M < K L
Conclusion:
I.L > M
II.L > N
III.M < J IV.K > J
1.Only I is true
2.Only II is true
3.Only I and II are true
4.Only I and III are true
5.All I, II, III and IV are true

37.Statement : Y < U W > V X
Conclusion:
I.X W
II.Y < W
III.U > V
IV.V < Y
1.Only I is true
2.Only IV is true
3.Only II is true
4.Only III is true
5.Both I and II are true

38.Statement : P > Q = S R > T
Conclusion:
I.T < S
II.T < P
III.R = Q
IV.R > Q
1.Only II is true
2.Only IV is true
3.Either III or IV true
4.Both II and III are true
5.Both I and II are true

39.What should come in place of blank spaces to make L . H and I > K always true in the expression
L_K_H_I _ J.
1.=, ,<, >
2.<, , >, <
3.>, >, =, =
4. ,<, >,
5.None of these

40.What should come in place of question mark in the given expression so as to make B>C always false?
B > D ? F= A C
1.= 2.>
3.>=
4.<
5.can ft be determined


1. Match the following Antibiotic Obtained from P. Erythromycin
1.Streptomyces erythaeraeus Q. Streptomycin 
2. Streptomyces griseus R. Aureomycin
3. Streptomyces aurofaciens
Choose the correct answer
A ) P-1, Q-3, R-2
B) P-1, Q-2, R-3
C ) P-3, Q-1, R-2
D) P-2, Q-1, R-3

2. which of the following is not correctly matched by the organism and its cell wall degrading enzymes ?
A ) Fungi – Chitinase
B ) Plant cell - Cellulase
C) Bacteria – Lysozyme
D) Algae – Mythalase

3. Which of the following represents maximum number of species among global biodiversity ?
A ) Lichens
B) Fungi
C ) Mosses and Ferns
D) Algae

4. During sewage treatment, biogas are produced which include
A ) Methane, Oxygen, Hydrogen sulphide
B) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide,Sulphur oxide
C) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, Methane
D)Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, CO2

5. Which one of the organelle matches with it’s function ?
A ) Golgi apparatus – Protein synthesis
B) Golgi apparatus – formation of glycolipids
C) Rough ER – protein synthesis
D) Rough ER – Formation of glycol

6. Age of tree can be estimated by
A ) Biomass
B) Number of annual rings
C) Diameter of its heartwood
D ) Its height and weight

7. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by
A ) Cytokinin
B ) ABA
C ) Gibberellin
D) Ethylene

8. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
A ) Sex of the foetus
B) Down syndrome
C ) Jaundice
D) Klinefelter syndrome

9. Read the following statements
P. Fruit 
Q. Nucellus
R. Ovule 
S. Embryosac
Which of the following is equivalent to the megasporangium ?
A ) Only R
B) Only S
C ) P,Q and S
D) P,Q,R and S

10. The Incorrect statement with regard to haemophilia is
A ) It is a recessive disease
B ) Its a dominant disease
C ) Its a sex linked disease
D) None of the above

11. Match the following Crop Variety
P. Wheat               1. Himgiri
Q. Chilli               2. Pusa swarnim
R. Brassica           3. Pusa Sadabahar
Choose the correct answer
A ) P-1, Q-3, R-2
B) P-1, Q-2, R-3
C ) P-3, Q-1, R-2
D) P-2, Q-1, R-3

12. Match the following Crop Insect Pests
P. Plat bean              1.Jassids, aphids
Q. Okra                   2. Fruit & shoot borer
R. Brassica              3. Aphids
Choose the correct answer
A ) P-1, Q-3, R-2
B) P-1, Q-2, R-3
C ) P-3, Q-1, R-2
D) P-2, Q-1, R-3

13. Match the following Crop Resistance to disease
P. Wheat                     1. Leaf & stripe rust
Q. Chilli                     2. Mosaic virus
R. Brassica                 3. White rust
Choose the correct answer
A ) P-1, Q-3, R-2
B) P-2, Q-1, R-3
C ) P-3, Q-1, R-2
D) P-1, Q-2, R-3

14. Read the following statements 
P. Denaturation 
Q. Primer annealing 
R.Extension of primers
Which of the following steps are related to the PCR ?
A ) Only R
B) Only Q
C ) P,Q and R
D) P and R

15. Match the following
      List I                            List II
P. Centriole                 1. Infoldings in mitochondria
Q. Chlorophyll            2. Thylakoids
R. Christae                 3. Nucliec acids
S. Ribozymes              4. Basal body of cilia & flagella
Choose the correct answer
A ) P-1, Q-3, R-2,S-4
B) P-1, Q-2, R-3,S-4
C ) P-4, Q-2, R-1,S-3
D) P-2, Q-1, R-3,S-4

16. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
A ) T-DNA
B) BAC and YAC
C) Expression vectors
D) T/A vectors

17. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?
A ) Methane, Oxygen, Hydrogen sulphide
B)Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, Sulphur oxide
C) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, Methane
D)Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, CO2

18. Which one of the followings are analogous structures ?
A ) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon
B ) Gills of prawn and lungs of man
C) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
D) Flippers of Dolphin and legs of horse

19. Non -Albuminous seed is produced in
A ) Maize
B ) Castor
C) Wheat
D) Pea

20. Which one of the following shows coiled RNA strand and Capsomeres ?
A ) Polio virus
B) Tobacco virus
C) Measles virus
D) Retrovirus

21. In which one of the following pair the two items mean one and the same thing?
A ) Leucocytes — lymphocytes
B ) SA node — pace maker
C ) Malleus — anvil
D ) Haemophilia — blood cancer

22. Adrenaline directly affects
I) Oxyntic cells of stomach
II) Sinoatrial node
III) Islet of Langerhans
IV) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
Choose the correct answer
A) Only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) all the above

23. Which one of the following sentences is wrong?
A) Monocytes can make up about 25% of circulating white blood cells.
B) The largest of the white blood cells are the monocytes.
C) Monocytes may survive for several months.
D) The spleen stores monocytes.

24. Damage to thymus in children may lead to
A) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
B) Reduction in stem cell production
C) Reduction of haemoglobin content of blood
D) Loss of cell-mediated immunity

25. Islets of Langerhans are found in
1) Anterior Pituitary 
2) Kidney Cortex
3) Spleen 
4) Endocrine pancreas
Choose the right option
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 2
C) Only 3
D) only 4

26. What is the inner lining of the uterus called?
I) Cervix 
II) Oviduct
III) Endometrium 
IV) Fimbriae
Select the correct answer
A) Only 1
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) I, II, III, & IV

27. During replication of DNA, Okazaki fragments are formed in the direction of
A) 3' - 5'
B) 5'- 3'
C) 5'- 5'
D) 3'- 3'

28. Why are UGA, UAG and UAA called termination codons ?
A) They do not specify any amino acid
B) They are present at the beginning of mRNA
C) They terminate anticodons
D) They indicate initiation of translation

29. A phenomenon where the third base of tRNA at its 5’ end can pair with a noncomplementary base of m-RNA is called
A) Degeneracy
B) Wobbling
C) Universality
D) Collinearity

30. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because
A) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
B) There are no vessels with perforations
C) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
D) There is no secondary growth

31. Placentation in tomato and lemon is
I) Marginal 
II) Axile
III) Parietal 
IV) Free central
Select the true answer
A) Only I
B) I and II
C) Only II
D) Only IV

32. Match the following Modification Example
1. Rhizome          i) Banana
2. Corms            ii) Jasmin
3. Phylloclades   iii) Oxalis
4. Runners         iv) Casuarina
5. Stolon            v) Colacasia
6. Sucker           vi) Ginger
Choose the right option
A) 1- v, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv, 5- vi, 6- i
B) 1- v, 2- iii,3- ii, 4- iv, 5- i, 6- vi
C) 1- vi, 2- v, 3- iv, 4- iii, 5- ii, 6- i
D) 1- vi, 2- v, 3- iii, 4- iv, 5- ii, 6- i

33. Match the following Fruit Edible part
1. Pepo                               i) Mesocarp
2. Nut                                ii) Mesocarp, Endocarp & placenta
3. Drupe                            iii) Cotyledons and fleshy pedicel
4. Hesperidium                  iv) placental hairs of endocarp
A) 1- iii, 2- ii, 3- i, 4- iv
B) 1- ii, 2-iii, 3- i, 4- iv
C) 1- ii, 2- i, 3- iii, 4- iv
D) 1- ii, 2- iii, 3- iv, 4- i

34. Match the following Modification Example
1. Stilt roots                     i) Avicenia
2. Prop roots                   ii) Banyan
3. Fibrous roots              iii) Asparagus
4. Tap roots                    iv) Carrot and Turnip
5. Pneumatophores          v) Maize
A) 1- iv, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- i, 5- v
B) 1- v, 2- iii,3- ii, 4- iv, 5- i
C) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv, 5- v
D) 1- v, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv, 5- i

35. Vertebral column extends from  the skull to
1) Pectoral girdle 
2) Pelvis
3) Frontal bone
4) Phalanges
Select the appropriate option
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Only 3
D) 3 and 4

36. Ions that must be present for binding the cross bridges is
1) K+ 
2) Na+ 
3) Ca+
Select the correct option
A) Only 1
B) Only 3
C) 2 and 3
D) None of these

37. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of
A) ATP
B) NADPH
C) ATP and NADPH
D) ATP, NADPH and O2

38. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration
A) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
B) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
C) It occurs in daytime only
D) It occurs in chloroplasts


How did plant and animal species originate?
species originated because plants and animals always adapted to the ever-changing environmental conditions The naturalist Charles Darwin discovered this in the middle of the 19th century The term survival of the fittest outlined his theory that only those plants oranimals that could adapt to the changing environment would survive, reproduce, and over time create new species Those unable to adapt would become tinct. The ecological niche an organism describes how that particular individual fits' into its ecosystem. For survival, each plant and animal needs to identify and retreat to its ecological niche. Now that we know how species originated, we can breed new specie

Who was Charles Darwin?
Charles Darwin was a British naturalist,At a time  when people still believed that living creature    was  created by God, he began his research on on the Galapagos islands to the west of South America. He found that all finches originated from a single species, This turned the prevalent picture as God's creation upside down and he faced a lot of opposition from the Church. However his theory was accepted by his colleagues, and when he published his theory of evolution' the book was quickly sold out.

Charles Darwin (1809–1882)  :  After attending the University of Cambridge and taking up medicine at the University of Edinburgh in Scotland, Darwin was considered a naturalist. As a biologist, he proposed the concept that “all species of life” came from a single source. His theory of evolution marked the beginning of the discussion on natural selection

Why do environmental conditions change?
There are many reasons for changes in the environment. Environmental change can be sudden because of a meteorite impact or a volcanic eruption or it can be gradual like a change in the climate. In the history of the Earth, there have been many sudden changes. Dust clouds and pollution darken and poison the world and cause catastrophes. slow changes in the environment such as changes in the sea level ice ages, or torrential rains can be due to different reasons. For instance, parts of the earth are lifted as a result of the displacement of tectonic plates and therefore sea coasts shift. Today, the environmental changes are mainly due to irresponsible human actions such as draining of marsh areas, cutting of trees, and air pollution

What is an ecological niche
The ecological niche describes a way of living that provides a species with adequate nutrition, an optimum environment, and as few enemies as possible. For instance, several different species of water birds can live together peacefully on the sea because each species prefers a different food or hunts for its food at different depths in the water. The birds do not prey on each other's food, and hence are not natural enemies. We can also say that this particular animal species has become specialized.

Why do we need to breed new species?
Fruit farmers try to grow good looking apples or those resistant to diseases. The aim is to prevent crop failure and earn more money. Even in animal breeding, the attempt is to breed animals which provide more milk or meat This is achieved, for instance, by crossing two species with each other. By cross- breeding a good milk-yielding cow with a weather-resistant bull, we can get a hardy, weather-resistant milking cow. We can also try to save endangered species by breeding them in zoos.


Still India is backward and that is because of our selfish politicians who encourage Reserved more than Deserved !!
  • 38 % of Doctors in US are Indians.
  • 36% of NASA Scientists are Indians.
  • 34% of Microsoft employees are Indians.
  • 28% of IBM employees are Indians.
  • 27% of Intel employees are Indians.
  • 37% of Total scientists in US are Indians.


1. We have a lot of quantity but what we want is quality.. Give a chance to the deserved rather than the reserved.

2. Really talented people don't get what they deserve...because they are not 'reserved'.
3. Reservation should be abolished or soon INDIA will get abolished . . .!
4. To prove the word equality in the constitution.
5. As abroad India should offer free quality education and should sponsor scholarships for unprivileged poor student, reservation is just opposite to it..
6. So that the quality people and real talent can get opportunity.
7. Due to reservations we’re feeling guilty, because undeserved people are getting seats and thus we are failing to show equality even if we want.
8. Reservation system is affecting education system.
9. Reservation system should be abolished because it is associated with the castes rather than the economically backward.
10. It was meant to end, not to increase with time...
11. Because the reserved are preferred over the deserved and that reserved is undeserving.
12. Because if this system continues.... India was developing country....India is developing country....and India will be a developing country for ever.....
13. If reservation policy continues it will lead to the “murder of merit".
14. Because generals are also human beings and they are neither born with extra ordinary brains, they’ve a silver spoon in their mouth.
15. Because the demon of Casteism is growing on account of reservation. People make fake caste certificates and taking the seats and scholarships of the talented ones. If the deserved people had got reservation, India could have become a developed country. Poverty and backwardness does not recognize any caste.
16. For the accomplishment of equal opportunity to deserving candidates...
17. Because it breaks the unity of the country.
18. So that all people may feel that they are being treated equally...!!
19. Even after 60 years of reservation system, they still need reservation. It means, they just don't deserve it!!

Share if you agree !!


Andhra Bank Recruitment Section ,H R Department,  Hyderabad Applications are invited from the eligible candidates fulfilling the following eligibility criteria for the post of Part Time Sweeper on 1/3 scale wages.

The Details :

Name of the Posts :  Part Time Sweeper

No. of Posts ;
Vijayawada Zone (Andhra Pradesh State): 08 Posts
Visakhapatnam Zone (Andhra Pradesh State): 08 Posts

Age: Candidates should be in the age group of 18 to 25 years as on the date of notification. However, the upper age limit shall be relaxed to the extent mentioned in the following case. SC/ST Category: By 5 years , OBC Category: By 3 years., Persons with Disability: By 10 years. Widows, Divorced Women and women legally separated from their husbands who are not remarried are entitled age relaxation by 9 years
Educational Qualifications: Minimum : Pass in 8th class or its equivalent , Maximum : Should not have passed 12th class or its equivalent. Should have studied local language as one of the subjects in 8th standard.

Salary :  1/3rd of Pay plus other allowances as applicable to Sub-Staff cadre ie.,Rs.3187/- plus other allowances as per B.P.Settlement.
Interested candidates may submit their applications directly to the concerned Zonal Office in the prescribed format with all attested copies of certificates in support of age, qualification alongwith Transfer Certificate/School Leaving Certificate from the Institution last studied, caste, place of domicile , Disability etc
HOW TO APPLY  : How to Apply: Eligible candidates may submit their applications in the prescribed format with all attested copies of certificates in support of age, qualification along with Transfer Certificate/School Leaving Certificate from the Institution last studied, caste, place of domicile, Disability etc to the concerned Zonal Office on or before 30.01.2017

LAST DATE :  Last Date for Receipt of Applications   30.01.2017


Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)  Applications are invited from eligible Indian Nationals meeting the following qualification & other parameters for engagement as Technician Apprentices under The Apprentices Act, 1961 and as amended from time to time, in the Trades of Electrical (Elect), Mechanical(Mech) and Telecommunication & Instrumentation(T&I) mentioned below, in Pipelines Division of IOCL


NAME OF THE PROGRAM :  TECHNICIAN APPRENTICES 

Duration  :  One year from the date of engagement.
 
QUALIFICATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:   
Technician Apprentice  Mechanical   :  Three years (or two years through lateral entry after ITI of minimum one year duration) full time Diploma in Mechanical Engineering from a Govt. recognized Institute.
   
Technician Apprentice  Electrical  :  Three years (or two years through lateral entry after ITI of minimum one year duration) full time Diploma in Electrical Engineering from a Govt. recognized institute.
Technician Apprentice Telecommunication & Instrumentation  :  Three years (or two years through lateral entry after ITI of minimum one year duration) full time Diploma in any of the following disciplines of Engineering from a Govt. recognized Institute:
i) Electronics & Communication Engineering
ii) Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering
iii) Electronics & Radio Communication Engineering
iv) Instrumentation & Control Engineering v) Electronics Engineering

STIPEND :  Consolidated stipend of Rs. 7530/- per month shall be payable to the Technician Apprentices.
                                               APPLY ONLINE CLICK HERE
AGE  :  Minimum 18 years and maximum 24 years as on 14.01.2017.

SELECTION METHODOLOGY
1) Selection process would consist of two stages i.e Written Test & Personal Interview.

2) Written test shall be of 85 marks and interview shall be of 15 marks.

3) Written Test shall be of Objective Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s) consisting of 4 options with one correct option. Candidate has to choose the correct option.

4) There shall be 85 questions in the Written Test and Total marks shall be 85. Each correct answer shall carry 1 mark. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.

5) From the total 85 objective type questions, 60 questions shall be from the concerned discipline of Diploma level and 25 questions on General Aptitude and Reasoning, General English/Hindi, Numerical Aptitude and General Knowledge.

6) Duration of Written Test shall be of 120 minutes i.e. two hours.
                                            APPLY ONLINE CLICK HERE
7) Candidates can opt for the Question Paper/Test either in English or Hindi language.

8) The candidates will have to qualify each stage of the selection process i.e. Written Test and Personal Interview. Minimum qualifying marks in Written Test and Interview is 40% separately. The same is relaxed by 5% to SC/ST candidates for the trades reserved for them.

9) Candidates securing minimum qualifying marks in the Written Test and in the order of merit will be called to attend Personal Interview in the ratio of 1:3 for each seat.

10) Obtaining minimum qualifying marks in the written test does not confer any right or claim by the candidate for being shortlisted for Personal Interview or the final selection, as the same is related to number of positions, relative performance in respective categories.

11) Final selection for engagement of apprentices will be based on aggregate of Written Test and Personal Interview marks. Candidates, in the order of merit will be offered the apprenticeship.

12) In case of tie for final shortlisting for engagement, the candidate older in age will be given preference in the merit list. In case the age is also identical, then the candidate with the higher percentage of marks in the required qualification shall be preferred.
                                            APPLY ONLINE CLICK HERE
13) Candidates are advised to ensure that they are medically fit as per IndianOil’s pre-employment medical standard. Candidates are advised to go through the “Guidelines and Criteria for Physical Fitness for Pre-employment medical Examination” before they commence the application process. The guidelines are available in the following link: https://www.iocl.com/PeopleCareers/Careers.asp

HOW TO APPLY
Candidates meeting the above prescribed eligibility criteria should visit our IOCL website https://plis.indianoilpipelines.in and apply Online from 14.01.2017 till 13.02.2017, Paper based applications will NOT be accepted.

LAST DATE :  Candidates can apply online from 14.01.2017 till 13.02.2017 at IOC website https://plis.indianoilpipelines.in




Fatehpur Sikri

Fatehpur Sikri was also the political capital of the Mughal Empire between 1571 and 1585. The dynasty’s treasure, arsenal and other precious belongings were kept in Fatehpur Sikri. Spread over a total area of two miles, Fatehpur Sikri took fifteen long years to be built. Today, this huge monument is one of the architectural marvels of our country with some of the best monuments within its premises. This huge architectural wonder is a major place of tourist interest which reflects a beautiful blend of Hindu and Muslim architectural styles. Fatehpur Sikri is one of the best examples of Mughal architecture. Work on the extensive project – featuring grand palaces, formal courtyards, pools, harems, tombs and a great mosque – began in 1571. A large number of skilled masons and craftsmen worked to their bones on an area that was over two miles long and a mile wide. The main material used for construction was red sandstone, which is available locally. Palace of Five Storeys, and the Buland Darwaza, a massive gate which provides entrance to the complex, it is numbered among the finest specimens of Mughal architecture. It is even arguable that Fatehpur Sikri is the greatest accomplishment of Mughal architecture, surpassed only in reputation.

Mughal Emperor Akbar known for his interest in architecture built the royal city Fatehpur Sikri in 16th century ,situated 26 miles west of Agra. One of the world Heritage Sites of India, Fatehpur Sikri is also known as the “City of Victory”. There is a legend behind the construction of this splendid city. Din-e-Ilahi, Akbar was without a heir for a long time, so he made a pilgrimage to the renowned Sufi saint, Sheik Salim Chisti, to seek his blessings. finally when a son was born to him (later known as Jehangir) Akbar built the new capital to mark his birth and named it after the saint as a mark of his gratitude

Fatehpur Sikri tourist attractions 

The Diwan-I-Am
journey to the royal palace begins with Diwan-I-Am or the Hall Of Public Audience. This hall was also used for celebrations and public prayers. It has cloisters on three sides of a rectangular courtyard. To the west is a pavilion with the Emperor’s throne. Beautiful jali screen on either sides separated the ladies attending the court.

Diwan-Khana-I-Khaas
To the right is an apparently looking two storeyed building, with corner kiosks, known as diwan-khana-I-khaas or Hall Of Private Audience. On entering it, one finds only a single vaulted chamber. In the centre stands a profusely carved column supporting a collosal-bracketed capital. Four narrow causeways project from the centre and run to each corner of the chamber. It is believed that Akbar’s throne occupied the circular space over the capital and the corners were assigned to the four ministers.

Turkish Sultana’s House
To the left of the Pachisi Board is the Turkish Sultana’s house. The house, as its location at the corner of Anup Talao shows, was a pavilion for repose, attached to the pool. The geometrical pattern on the ceiling is reminiscent of Central Asian carvings in wood.

Daulat Khana-I-Khas
Located in the corner to the left is the emperor’s private chamber. It has two main rooms on the ground floor. One housed Akbar’s library while the larger room was his resting area. On the first floor is the Khwabgah or the bed-chamber. It was connected with the Turkish Sultana’s house, the Panch Mahal, Mariam’s House and the Jodha Bai’s palace by corridors.

Palace of Jodha Bai
To the left of the Sunehra Makan is the largest and the most important building in the royal palace, named after Akbar’s Rajput wife, Jodha Bai. This spacious palace was assured of privacy and security by high walls and a 9 metre guarded gate to the east. The architecture is a blend of styles with Hindu columns and Muslim cupolas.

Hawa Mahal & Nagina Masjid
To the right of Jodha Bai’s palace is Hawa Mahal, the Palace of Winds. This small-screened wind tower faces the garden and is attached to the palace. The garden is laid out in the Char Bagh style with straight walls intersecting at right angles and divided by shallow channels.

Birbal’s Palace
To the north west of the Jodha Bai’s Palace is the 2 storeyed palace occupied by Akbar’s two senior queens- ruqnayya begum and salima sultan begum. It has two storeys-four rooms and two porches with pyramidical roofs below and two rooms with cupolas and screened terraces above. The building combines hindu and muslim atyles of srchitecture.

Dargah of Sheikh Salim Chisti
To the North of the Mosque is the Dargah of Sheikh Salim Chishti. This Dargah was built in 1570. Here, childless women come for blessings of the saint. Even Akbar was blessed with three sons, when he came here. The lattice work in the Dargah is among the finest to be found any where in India.

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